I don't (yet) have any ambition to understand all that stuff type-theoretically, but I noticed the following interesting fact about types and parametricity and Grothendieck's "functor of points" approach.
Observe that we can straightforwardly write down, in dependent type theory, the type of rings as a record type. \[ \begin{array}{l} \mathsf{Ring} : \rset_1\\ \mathsf{Ring} := \mathbf{record}\ \{\\ \qquad S : \rset \\ \qquad 0\ 1 : S \\ \qquad \_{+}\_\quad \_{\cdot}\_ : S\x S \to S \\ \qquad {-} : S \to S \\ \qquad \mathsf{plus\_assoc} : (a\ b\ c : S) \to a+ (b + c) \equiv (a + b) + c \\ \qquad \mathsf{times\_assoc} : (a\ b\ c : S) \to a\cdot (b \cdot c) \equiv (a \cdot b) \cdot c \\ \qquad \cdots\\ \}\\ \end{array} \] as well as the type of ring homomorphisms: \[ \begin{array}{l} \mathsf{Hom} : (R_1\ R_2 : \mathsf{Ring}) \to \rset\\ \mathsf{Hom}\ R_1\ R_2 := \mathbf{record}\ \{\\ \qquad h : R_1.S \to R_2.S \\ \qquad \mathsf{pres\_0} : f\ R_1.0 \equiv R_2.0\\ \qquad \mathsf{pres\_plus} : (a\ b : R_1.S) \to f\ (R_1.\_{+}\_\ a\ b) = R_2.\_{+}\_\ (f\ a)\ (f\ b)\\ \qquad \cdots\\ \}\\ \end{array} \] Therefore we can define $\spec$ as \[ \begin{array}{l} \spec : \mathsf{Ring} \to \rset_1\\ \spec\ A = (R : \mathsf{Ring}) \x \mathsf{Hom}\ A\ R \end{array} \] Now consider what functions $f$ there are that make the diagram \[ \begin{CD} \spec(A) @>{f}>> \spec(B) \\ @VVV @VVV\\ \mathsf{Ring} @= \mathsf{Ring} \\ \end{CD} \] commute, for rings $A$ and $B$, and for the evident projection from $\spec(\hbox{—})$ to $\mathsf{Ring}$. Since $\spec(A)$ contains a type field (namely $A.S$) it's relevant to suppose that $f$ is parametric polymorphic over that type.
In fact, we claim:
Claim: asking for a parametric $f$ that fits in the above diagram is the same thing as asking for a ring homomorphism $B \to A$. That is, $\spec$ contravariantly faithfully embeds rings in the slice category of types over $\mathsf{Ring}$.Let's show that this claim is true.
The commutativity of the diagram means that the $\mathsf{Ring}$ part of $\spec$ is preserved, so the essential data of $f$ we care about is really just a function \[ g :\{R : \mathsf{Ring}\} \to \mathsf{Hom}\ A\ R \to \mathsf{Hom}\ B\ R\] Let's construct the two directions of the equivalence we're claiming. If we have a $g$, we can invoke it at the identity ring homomorphism $A \to A$, and it outputs ring homomorphism $g\ \rid_A : B \to A$. In the other direction, if we have a ring homomorphism $h : B \to A$, then all it takes is ring homomorphism composition to make \[ \lambda\ \{R\}\ k . k \o h : \{R : \mathsf{Ring}\} \to \mathsf{Hom}\ A\ R \to \mathsf{Hom}\ B\ R\]
Now we want to show both round trips are the identity. One round trip is easy, the other one needs parametricity. The easy round trip is that if we start with $h : B \to A$, lift to $\lambda k . k \o h$, and then apply to the identity, we get $\rid_A \o h = h$.
In the other direction, we start with $g$, we instantiate to get $g\ \rid_A : B \to A$, then we lift, and we want to check that \[ g \equiv \lambda\ \{R\}\ k . k \o (g\ \rid_A) \] with that equality taking place at the type $\{R : \mathsf{Ring}\} \to \mathsf{Hom}\ A\ R \to \mathsf{Hom}\ B\ R$. By extensionality, we need to show \[(R: \mathsf{Ring}) (k : \mathsf{Hom}\ A\ R) \to g\ k \equiv k \o (g\ \rid_A) \] or in fact by another step of extensionality on the underlying function of $k$, this is \[(R: \mathsf{Ring}) (k : \mathsf{Hom}\ A\ R) (b : B) \to g\ k\ b \equiv k\ ( g\ \rid_A\ b) \] Now we turn the parametricity crank and find that the free theorem for $g$ is:
Suppose we have two rings $R_1, R_2$, and a relation between them, $\_\sim\_ : R_1.S \to R_2.S \to \rset$So we make the following choices: \[R_1 := R\qquad R_2 := A \qquad h_1 := k\qquad h_2 := \rid_A\] \[(r \sim a) := (r \equiv k\ a)\] and the free theorem pops out $g\ k\ b \equiv k\ ( g\ \rid_A\ b)$, just what we needed.
Suppose the relation is compatible with all the algebraic operations, for example $0 \sim 0 $, and whenever $a \sim a'$ and $b \sim b'$, we have $a + b \sim a' + b'$.
Suppose we have two ring homomorphisms $h_1 : A \to R_1$ and $h_2 : A \to R_2$ that are pointwise related: for any $a : A$ we have $h_1(a) \sim h_2(a)$.
Then $g\ h_1$ and $g\ h_2$ are pointwise related, i.e. for all $b : B$, we have $g\ h_1\ b \sim g\ h_2\ b$.
But! Something about this is interesting to me in that it seems really easy to talk about things other than rings in this way. I'm aware that there's an active field of research into "what the field with one element could be" and I get the sense it's got a lot to do with choosing alternate foundations for defining what an algebra-geometric object is other than the category of rings. Some crumbs from this story that I think I understand are the fact that $\Z$, the initial object in $\mathsf{Rng}$, has somehow "too much structure", and we'd prefer a world in which even the schemes that we call "absolute" are more relative, e.g. where $\spec\ \Z$ was "over" something else, call it $\mathbb F_1$.
While I don't think the above discussion provides any answers to the question of what that other foundation is, it does seem to me like potentially a nice way to organize and compare such answers if other people have them. Everything takes place in a background of simply type theory. One object can live over the type of rings, another can live over the type of blueprints a la Lorscheid or something, and they can all get along together fine.
Maybe things like change-of-base by pullback across different such foundations makes sense. And in any case it's one more nice application of parametricity, which I am always happy to add to my collection.